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RN Nursing · Prenatal Care · Practice question

A client visits the clinic for routine testing and is diagnosed with syphilis. The client states, "I feel fine, so I don't think I really have it." Which response by the nurse is appropriate?

Answer & explanation

Correct: "Syphilis can progress through stages, and the infection may not cause symptoms in the early stages."

Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum and progresses through several distinct stages. In the primary stage, a painless chancre appears at the infection site and may go unnoticed. The secondary stage involves a systemic rash, mucous membrane lesions, and flu-like symptoms. The latent stage is completely asymptomatic — the client feels entirely well — yet the infection is still present and transmissible in early latency. Tertiary syphilis can develop years later with severe organ damage. Therefore, telling the client that syphilis can progress through stages and may not cause symptoms in the early stages is the accurate and therapeutic response. It validates the client's experience while correcting the misconception that feeling fine means the infection is absent or that treatment is unnecessary. The option stating syphilis only causes symptoms in immunocompromised individuals is factually wrong; syphilis affects people regardless of immune status. The option suggesting that the absence of visible sores means the client cannot spread it is dangerous misinformation, as the infection is transmissible even without visible lesions. The option suggesting a false positive is irresponsible and could deter the client from receiving treatment, allowing disease progression and continued transmission.

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