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RN Nursing · Med-Surg · Practice question

An NP is evaluating an adult male patient with infertility. Which of the following findings in the patient's history is the most likely contributing factor?

Answer & explanation

Correct: Varicocele.

A varicocele is an abnormal dilation of the pampiniform venous plexus within the scrotum, and it is the most common surgically correctable cause of male infertility, found in approximately 15% of all men and 35–40% of infertile men. The mechanism involves impaired venous drainage leading to elevated scrotal temperature, accumulation of toxic metabolites, and oxidative stress, all of which impair spermatogenesis and reduce sperm motility, morphology, and count. Hypertension managed with lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, does not cause infertility; while some antihypertensive agents such as calcium channel blockers have been weakly associated with sperm function changes, lisinopril is not known to cause this. Regular use of melatonin has not been established as a significant contributing factor to male infertility in clinical evidence. A surgically repaired inguinal hernia could theoretically damage the vas deferens during the procedure, but this is a rare complication and the question states it was repaired, implying no ongoing obstruction. Among the options presented, varicocele stands out as the most well-established, common, and clinically significant cause of male infertility, making it the correct answer for an NP evaluating an infertile adult male patient.

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